According to Aristotle's The Politics, it is said that a person can be defined as a citizen if both of his parents are born citizens and also if his third or fourth ancestry also happen to be citizens. Unto a person's citizenry, does it mean that there is rather no chance for a slave to ever become a citizen? Does it also mean that the future children of a slave and of his children's children have no chance of ever becoming a citizen? If there is, what instances would that be?
What does Aristotle mean when he said that polis is a group of villages which "grows for the sake of mere life and exists for the sake of good life"? According to Aristotle, the polis is prior to the individual. Will this line of argument feasible at present times? I think people are too short-sighted for such an idealized concept.
According to Aristotle, "in order to rule, you must first be ruled.” Would this be applicable in a state wherein everyone is grabbing for power and influence by all means?
What does Aristotle mean when he said that polis is a group of villages which "grows for the sake of mere life and exists for the sake of good life"? According to Aristotle, the polis is prior to the individual. Will this line of argument feasible at present times? I think people are too short-sighted for such an idealized concept.
According to Aristotle, "in order to rule, you must first be ruled.” Would this be applicable in a state wherein everyone is grabbing for power and influence by all means?
that is why for one to become a good leader, one must humble himself fist and be a follower. Vivian Flowers
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